Practice Exam 2
This exam consists of 72 questions that reflect the material covered in this book. These questions represent the types of questions you should expect to see on the Network+ exam; however, they are not intended to match exactly what is on the exam.
Some of the questions require that you deduce the best possible answer. Often, you are asked to identify the best course of action to take in a given situation. You must read the questions carefully and thoroughly before you attempt to answer them. It is strongly recommended that you treat this as if it were the actual exam. When you take it, time yourself, read carefully, and answer all the questions to the best of your ability.
The answers appear in “Answers to Practice Exam 2.” Check your answers against those in the “Answers at a Glance,” and then read the explanations in “Answers and Explanations.” You might also want to return to the chapters to review the material associated with any incorrect answers.
1. You suspect that someone is capturing the data sent on your network. You want to capture data to ensure that it is encrypted and cannot be read by intruders. Which of the following network utilities can both intruders and administrators use to capture network traffic?
A. Port scanner
B. Packet filter
C. Data watcher
D. Packet sniffer
2. You have been hired to review the security of a company’s network. Upon investigation, you notice that a wireless AP has been installed in a wiring closet without the consent of the administrator. The AP is actively used by remote users to access resources on the company’s network. Which security problem does this represent?
A. Rogue protocol interception
B. Rogue AP
C. Network sniffing
D. Social engineering
3. You have been employed by a small company to implement a fault-tolerant hard disk configuration. You have purchased four 40GB hard disks, and you plan to install RAID 5 on the server. What is the storage capacity of the RAID solution?
A. 120GB
B. 40GB
C. 80GB
D. 160GB
4. You have been called in to troubleshoot a small network. The network uses TCP/IP and statically assigned IP information. You add a new workstation to the network. It can connect to the local network but not to a server on a remote network. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the problem?
A. Incorrect IP address.
B. Incorrect default gateway.
C. The DHCP server is unavailable.
D. Duplicate IP addresses are being used.
5. Under what circumstance would you change the default channel on an access point?
A. When channel overlap occurs between access points
B. To release and renew the SSID
C. To increase the WEP security settings
D. To decrease the WEP security settings
6. On several occasions your wireless router has been compromised, and intruders are logging onto it. Which of the following strategies could you use to increase the security of the wireless routers? (Choose the two best answers.)
A. Use SSL.
B. Disable SSID broadcast.
C. Use MAC filtering.
D. Use wireless filtering.
7. You have just purchased a new wireless access point that uses no WEP security by default. You change the security settings to use 128-bit encryption. How must the client systems be configured?
A. All client systems must be set to 128-bit encryption.
B. The client system inherits security settings from the AP.
C. WEP does not support 128-bit encryption.
D. The client WEP settings have to be set to autodetect.
8. Which of the following topology types offers the greatest amount of redundancy?
A. Star
B. Bus
C. Ring
D. Mesh
9. You need to install a network printer, and you require the printer’s MAC address to finish the installation. Which of the following is a valid MAC address?
A. 192.168.2.13
B. 0x00007856
C. 00:04:e2:1c:7b:5a
D. 56g78:00h6:1415
10. You have been called in to replace a faulty ST connector. Which of the following media types are you working with?
A. RG-58
B. RG-62
C. Single-mode fiber
D. SCSI
11. Your manager asks you to recommend a secure way to copy files between a server on your network and a remote server in another location. Which of the following solutions are you most likely to recommend?
A. TFTP
B. FTP
C. SFTP
D. IGMP
12. You are setting up a wide area network between two school campuses, and you decide to use BRI ISDN. What is the maximum throughput of your connection?
A. 64Kbps
B. 128Kbps
C. 128Mbps
D. 64Mbps
13. You are troubleshooting a 100BaseT network, and you suspect that the maximum cable length has been exceeded. What is the maximum length of a 100BaseT network segment?
A. 25 meters
B. 100 meters
C. 185 meters
D. 500 meters
14. You are asked to configure the security settings for a new wireless network. You want the setting that offers the greatest level of security. Which of the following would you choose?
A. WEP-open
B. WEP-closed
C. WEP-shared
D. WEP-unshared
15. What is the maximum cable length of a 10BaseT network?
A. 185 meters
B. 500 meters
C. 100 meters
D. 50 meters
16. While troubleshooting a DNS issue from a UNIX server, you suspect that the DNS record for one of your other servers is incorrect. Which of the following utilities are you most likely to use to troubleshoot this problem?
A. ipconfig
B. dig
C. netstat
D. nbtstat
17. A number of users have called to report printing problems. Upon investigation, you trace the problem to a network printer connected to a server system. You arrive at the printer to find that it is connected online and appears to perform a test print without any problems. You check the network connectivity, and that seems to be okay as well. Which troubleshooting step would you perform next?
A. Examine the log files on the server to determine whether any printing-related events have occurred.
B. Reboot the server that acts as the print server.
C. Remove and reinstall the printer drivers.
D. Change the network cable that connects the printer to the network.
18. You are experiencing problems with the network connectivity of a Windows Vista system. You suspect that there might be a problem with an incorrect route in the routing table. Which of the following TCP/IP utilities can you use to view the routing table? (Choose two.)
A. tracert
B. nbstat
C. route
D. netstat
E. ping
19. Which of the following best describes the function of asymmetric key encryption?
A. It uses both a private and public key to encrypt and decrypt messages.
B. It uses two private keys to encrypt and decrypt messages.
C. It uses a single key for both encryption and decryption.
D. It uses three separate keys for both encryption and decryption.
20. Which of the following services provides name resolution services for FQDNs?
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. WINS
D. ARP
E. NTP
21. You are installing a 100BaseFX network, and you need to purchase connectors. Which of the following might you purchase? (Choose two.)
A. RJ-45
B. ST
C. BNC
D. SC
22. To increase wireless network security, you have decided to implement port-based security. Which of the following standards specifies port-based access control?
A. 802.11x
B. 802.1x
C. 802.11b
D. 802.1b
23. When designing a network, you have been asked to select a cable that offers the most resistance to crosstalk. Which of the following are you likely to choose?
A. Multimode fiber-optic
B. Shielded twisted pair
C. UTP
D. Shielded mesh
24. Which of the following are considered disaster recovery measures? (Choose two.)
A. Backups
B. UPS
C. RAID 5
D. Offsite data storage
25. Which command produces the following output?
A. arp
B. tracert
C. ipconfig
D. netinf
26. You are working with a wireless network that is using channel 1 (2412MHz). What RF range would be used if you switched to channel 3?
A. 2417
B. 2422
C. 2427
D. 2408
27. Because of a recent security breach, you have been asked to design a security strategy that will allow data to travel encrypted through both the Internet and intranet. Which of the following protocols would you use?
A. IPSec
B. SST
C. CHAP
D. FTP
28. As part of a network upgrade, you have installed a router on your network, creating two networks. Now, workstations on one side of the router cannot access workstations on the other side. Which of the following configuration changes would you need to make to the workstations to enable them to see devices on the other network? (Choose two.)
A. Change the IP address assignments on one side of the router so that the router is on a different IP network from the other one.
B. Update the default gateway information on all systems so that they use the newly installed router as the gateway.
C. Update the default gateway information on all systems so that they use a workstation on the other network as the default gateway.
D. Make sure that the IP address assignments on all network workstations are the same.
29. Which type of cable should be used in a 100BaseT network?
A. RG-58
B. Category 4 UTP
C. Category 5 UTP
D. Multimode fiber
30. Which of the following network types is easiest to add new nodes to?
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Mesh
31. You are troubleshooting a network connectivity error, and you need to issue a continuous ping command. Which of the following switches is used with ping to send a continuous ping message?
A. -p
B. -t
C. -c
D. -r
32. You recently installed a DHCP server to replace static IP addressing. You configure all client systems to use DHCP and then reboot each system. After they are rebooted, they all have an IP address in the 169.254.0.0 range. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The DHCP server has been configured to assign addresses in the 169.254.0.0 IP range.
B. The DHCP server must be rebooted.
C. Client systems are unable to access the new DHCP server.
D. Client systems are getting IP address information from the HOSTS file.
33. Placing a node on which of the following types of networks would require that you obtain an address from IANA?
A. Private network
B. Public network
C. Ethernet network
D. LAN
34. You are implementing a new network. From the network specifications, you learn that you will be using the 1000BaseCX standard. What type of cable will you use?
A. Multimode fiber
B. STP
C. Single-mode fiber
D. CoreXtended fiber
35. Which of the following network protocols can recover from lost or corrupted packets in a network transmission?
A. L2TP
B. TCP
C. FTP
D. ARP
36. Your colleague decides to close all unused ports on the corporate firewall to further secure the network from intruders. The open ports are 25, 80, 110, and 53. Your colleague knows that ports 25 and 110 are required for email and that port 80 is used for nonsecure web browsing, so he decides to close port 53, because he doesn’t think it is necessary. Which network service is now unavailable?
A. Secure HTTP
B. FTP
C. Telnet
D. DNS
37. You are working on a Linux system, and you suspect that there might be a problem with the TCP/IP configuration. Which of the following commands would you use to view the system’s network card configuration?
A. config
B. ipconfig
C. winipcfg
D. ifconfig
38. You have configured network clients to obtain IP addresses using APIPA. Which of the following IP ranges would be assigned to client systems?
A. 10.10.0.0 to 10.254.254.0
B. 169.168.0.0 to 169.168.255.255
C. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.254.254
D. 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254
39. Your manager asks you to implement a fault-tolerant disk solution on your server. You have two 30GB hard disks and two controllers, so you decide to implement RAID 1. After the installation, your manager asks you how much storage space is now available for storing data. What do you tell her?
A. 30GB
B. 40GB
C. 60GB
D. 120GB
40. Which of the following statements best describes PRI ISDN?
A. PRI ISDN uses 128 B channels and two D channels.
B. PRI ISDN uses 23 B channels and one D channel.
C. PRI ISDN uses two B channels and one D channel.
D. PRI ISDN uses 23 D channels and one B channel.
41. Which of the following media types is used with the 802.3 1000BaseSX standard?
A. Coaxial
B. UTP
C. Single-mode fiber-optic
D. Multimode fiber-optic
42. What is the name of the bridging method used to segregate Ethernet networks?
A. Source-route
B. Invisible
C. Cut-through
D. Transparent
43. A remote user calls you because he cannot dial in to the remote server. He says that the modem dials the number and negotiates the connection, but then the line is dropped. Which of the following troubleshooting steps are you likely to try first? (Choose two.)
A. Change the modem IRQ assignments.
B. Run a remote diagnostic on the remote access server’s modem.
C. Ask the user to verify that the username and password are correct.
D. Ask the user to verify that he is dialing the correct system.
44. At which layer of the OSI model does a NIC operate?
A. Physical
B. Network
C. Data link
D. Transport
45. You are installing a wireless network solution that uses a feature known as MIMO. Which wireless networking standard are you using?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
46. You are implementing a 100BaseT network. Which logical topology does the network use?
A. Ring
B. Star
C. Mesh
D. Bus
47. Which command produces the following output?
A. arp
B. netstat
C. nbtstat
D. tracert
48. Which of the following devices was specifically designed to deal with attenuation? (Choose two.)
A. Switch
B. Passive hub
C. DHCP server
D. Repeater
49. You are attempting to troubleshoot a remote connectivity problem for a user. Although the modem seems to be working properly within the computer, you cannot get the modem to dial a number. Working within a terminal software application, you attempt to communicate directly with the modem. From within the terminal application, which command would you issue to reset the modem?
A. ATD
B. ATI3
C. ATZ
D. ATH
50. Which of the following protocols maps Layer 2 addresses to Layer 3 addresses on a TCP/IP network?
A. ARPA
B. ARP
C. AARP
D. RARP
51. You have been asked to implement a server clustering strategy. Which of the following are reasons to use server clustering? (Choose two.)
A. To increase data transmission security over the LAN
B. To increase data transmission security over the WAN
C. To increase server service fault tolerance
D. To reduce network downtime
52. Which of the following is not a type of Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) technology?
A. VHDSL
B. RADSL
C. ADSL
D. XTDSL
53. You come into work on Monday to find that the DHCP server failed over the weekend. Before you can fix it, client systems boot up and can communicate with each other. However, they cannot directly access the Internet or a remote network segment. Given that the DHCP server has failed, how can the systems communicate?
A. The DHCP service was recovered automatically using the Windows XP automatic restoration utility.
B. The DHCP addressing information was obtained from the client cache.
C. The client systems are assigned an IP address using APIPA.
D. The client systems are using static IP addressing.
54. Which of the following are reasons to implement a proxy server? (Choose two.)
A. To centrally control Internet access
B. To protect the internal network from intruders
C. To provide NAT services
D. To provide automatic IP addressing on the network
55. Which command produces the following output?
A. nbtstat
B. netstat
C. ifconfig
D. arp
56. Which of the following wireless technologies typically are used to create a wireless personal area network? (Choose two.)
A. Infrared
B. 802.11g
C. Bluetooth
D. 802.11c
57. Which of the following is a valid Class C address that could be assigned to a workstation on the network?
A. 200.200.200.200
B. 200.200.200.255
C. 143.67.151.17
D. 203.16.42.0
58. At which layer of the OSI model is flow control performed?
A. Network
B. Transport
C. Session
D. Data link
59. Which of the following statements is true of IMAP?
A. IMAP leaves messages on the mail server so that they can be viewed and accessed from various locations.
B. IMAP is used to send as well as receive email.
C. IMAP can only be used to send mail.
D. IMAP uses port 110.
60. You are implementing a new network that will use 100BaseT with switches configured for full duplex. What is the maximum throughput that will be possible between two devices on the network?
A. 10Mbps
B. 20Mbps
C. 200Mbps
D. 100Mbps
61. Your manager asks you to implement a RAID 5 fault-tolerant disk solution using four 40GB disks. He wants to know how much data storage capacity will be lost by the implementation. What do you tell him?
A. 10GB
B. 20GB
C. 40GB
D. 120GB
62. A user calls you from a conference room. He needs to connect to the corporate RAS server, but the modem in his system is reporting a “no dial tone” error. When he plugs the telephone back in to the phone socket, he gets a dial tone and can dial out successfully. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The phone line in the room is analog.
B. The phone line in the room is faulty.
C. The modem is faulty.
D. The phone line in the room is digital.
63. Which of the following IPv6 addressing types is associated with IPv4 automatic 169.254.0.0 addressing?
A. Link-local
B. Site-local
C. Global address
D. Unicast
64. Which of the following utilities would you use to view the TCP connections that have been established between two systems?
A. netstat
B. nbtstat
C. tracert
D. ipconfig
65. Which of the following authentication systems uses tickets as part of its authentication process?
A. HTTPS
B. POP3
C. Kerberos
D. SSL
66. Which of the following terms describes how long it takes routers to update changes in the network topology?
A. Poison reverse
B. Split horizon with poison reverse
C. Convergence
D. BGP
67. Which term describes the process of using parts of the node address range of an IP address as the network ID?
A. Subnetting
B. Supernetting
C. Subnet masking
D. Super routing
68. What network device forwards packets only to an intended port?
A. Hub
B. Switch
C. Gateway
D. PPP
69. A user on your network can send data packets within the local subnet but cannot send packets beyond the local subnet. Which of the following is likely the problem?
A. Invalid permissions
B. Incorrect gateway information
C. No DNS server is installed
D. No WINS server is installed
70. You are the administrator for a network that uses TCP/IP. You are using a single registered Class C network address. You want to continue to use it because many of your systems are accessed from outside sources, but you also want to create more networks so that you can manage traffic and security more effectively. Which of the following strategies would help you achieve this?
A. Implement a 127.x.x.x addressing system throughout the network.
B. Use reverse proxy.
C. Use subnetting.
D. Use private addressing.
71. In a hardware loopback plug, which wire numbers are connected? (Choose the two best answers.)
A. 3 and 5
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 and 4
E. 2 and 6
72. You are working with an IPv6 network, and you need to ping the local loopback address. You know that the loopback address for the IPv4 network is 127.0.0.1, and you need the equivalent for the IPv6 network. Which address should you use? (Choose two.)
A. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1
B. ::1
C. ::127
D. FE80::
Answers to Practice Exam 2
Answers at a Glance
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. A
6. B, C
7. A
8. D
9. C
10. C
11. C
12. B
13. B
14. C
15. C
16. B
17. A
18. C, D
19. A
20. A
21. B, D
22. B
23. A
24. A, D
25. A
26. B
27. A
28. A, B
29. C
30. C
31. B
32. C
33. B
34. B
35. B
36. D
37. D
38. D
39. A
40. B
41. D
42. D
43. C, D
44. C
45. D
46. D
47. B
48. A, D
49. C
50. D
51. C, D
52. D
53. C
54. A, C
55. A
56. A, C
57. A
58. B
59. A
60. C
61. C
62. D
63. A
64. A
65. C
66. C
67. A
68. B
69. B
70. C
71. B, E
72. A, B
Answers and Explanations
Question 1
D. Both administrators and hackers use packet sniffers on networks to capture network data. They are either a hardware device or software and eavesdrop on network transmissions that are traveling throughout the network. The packet sniffer quietly captures data and saves it to be reviewed later. Answer A is incorrect because port scanners monitor traffic into and out of ports such as those connected to a switch. Answers B and C are not valid traffic-monitoring technologies.
Question 2
B. A rogue access point describes a situation in which a wireless access point has been placed on a network without the administrator’s knowledge. The result is that it is possible to remotely access the rogue access point, because it likely does not adhere to company security policies. Answers A and C are not valid security risk types. Answer D is a type of attack that involves tricking people into performing actions or divulging confidential information such as passwords or usernames.
Question 3
A. RAID 5 reserves the equivalent space of one disk in the array for parity information. The parity information is used to rebuild the data in the event of a hard disk crash. This scenario has four 40GB hard disks. With one reserved for parity, you have 160GB total space; with 40GB removed for parity, there is 120GB of actual data storage.
Question 4
B. To connect to systems on a remote network, the default gateway address has to be correctly assigned. If this address is entered manually, the number might have been entered incorrectly. Because the system can connect to the local network, the address is correctly assigned. Answer C is incorrect because IP addresses are statically assigned. Answer D is incorrect because duplicate addresses will prevent the system from being able to log on to the network.
Question 5
A. Ordinarily the default channel used with a wireless device is adequate. However, it may be necessary to change the channel if overlap with another nearby access point occurs. The channel should be changed to another, nonoverlapping channel. Changing the channel would not impact the WEP security settings.
Question 6
B, C. Administrators can take several security steps to help secure a wireless access point. This includes disabling the SSID broadcast. This makes it more difficult for intruders to get the name of your wireless network. MAC filtering is used to accept or deny client systems based on their MAC address. MAC filtering is an example of an access control list (ACL). Answer A is incorrect because SSL is a security protocol used to increase data transmission security. Answer D is incorrect because wireless filtering is not a valid security measure.
Question 7
A. On a wireless connection between an access point and the client, each system must be configured to use the same settings, which includes the SSID, and security settings including WEP. In this question, both the client and the AP must be configured to use 128-bit encryption. Answer B is incorrect because the client does not inherit the information from the AP. Answer C is incorrect because WEP supports 128-bit encryption. Answer D is incorrect because WEP does not have an autodetect feature.
Question 8
D. In a mesh topology, each device is connected directly to every other device on the network. Such a structure requires that each device have at least two network connections. Answers A, B, and C do not offer the same level of redundancy as a mesh topology.
Question 9
C. A MAC address contains six hexadecimal number sets. The first three sets represent the manufacturer’s code, whereas the last three identify the unique station ID. Answer A is incorrect because the number is a valid internal IP address. Answers B and D are not valid MAC addresses.
Question 10
C. ST connectors are a twist-type connector used with single-mode fiber. Answer A is incorrect because RG-58 (thin coax) uses BNC-type connectors. Answer B is incorrect because RG-62 (thick coax) uses vampire-type AUI connectors. Answer D is incorrect because SCSI cables use a variety of connector types, none of which include ST connectors.
Question 11
C. Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) allows you to securely copy files from one location to another. SFTP provides authentication and encryption capabilities to safeguard data. Answer A is incorrect because TFTP is a mechanism that provides file-transfer capabilities, but it does not provide security. Answer B is incorrect because FTP provides basic authentication mechanisms, but it does not provide encryption. Answer D is incorrect because IGMP is a protocol associated with multicast group communications. It is not a file transfer protocol.
Question 12
B. BRI ISDN uses two 64-Kbps data channels. Combined, BRI ISDN offers a 128-Kbps transfer rate.
Question 13
B. 100BaseT is an Ethernet network standard implemented using thin twisted-pair cable. The maximum length of a segment is 100 meters. When cable is run beyond 100 meters, repeaters can be used to regenerate the signal for longer transmission distances.
Question 14
C. Both WEP-open and WEP-shared are forms of wireless security. WEP-open is the simpler of the two authentication methods because it does not perform any type of client verification. It is a very weak form of authentication because it requires no proof of identity. WEP-shared requires that a WEP key be configured on both the client system and the access point. This makes authentication with WEP-shared mandatory and therefore more secure for wireless transmission. Answers B and D are not valid WEP options.
Question 15
C. 10BaseT networks use UTP media, which have a maximum distance of 100 meters. Answer A is incorrect because 185 meters is the distance limitation of thin coax media used on 10Base2 networks. Answer B is incorrect because 500 meters is the distance limitation of thick coaxial media used with 10Base5 networks. Answer D is incorrect because 50 meters is not a valid cable distance.
Question 16
B. The dig command is used on UNIX and Linux systems to perform manual name resolutions against a DNS server. This can be useful in troubleshooting DNS-related issues. The ipconfig, netstat, and nbtstat commands are all
Windows-based commands, so they would not be used in this scenario.
Question 17
A. Log files often record information about errors that can be vital to the troubleshooting process. Answer B is incorrect because rebooting the server is a last-resort troubleshooting step. Answer C is incorrect because although removing and reinstalling the printer drivers might be a valid step, it would not be the first choice of those listed. Changing the network cable might be a valid troubleshooting step, but because it has been verified that the network connectivity is working, this should not be necessary.
Question 18
C, D. Both the route and netstat commands can be used to view the routing table on a Windows Vista system. Answer A is incorrect because the tracert utility is used to track the route a packet takes between two destinations. Answer B is incorrect because the nbtstat command is used to view statistical information for NetBIOS connections. Answer E is incorrect because the ping utility is used to test network connectivity.
Question 19
A. Asymmetric key encryption uses both a private and public key to encrypt and decrypt messages. The public key is used to encrypt a message or verify a signature, and the private key is used to decrypt the message or sign a document. In a symmetric key encryption strategy, a single key is used for both encryption and decryption. None of the other answers represents asymmetric key encryption.
Question 20
A. The Domain Name System (DNS) resolves Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs) to IP addresses. Answer B is incorrect because Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) provides automatic IP address assignment. Answer C is incorrect because the Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS) provides NetBIOS computer name to IP address resolution. Answer D is incorrect because Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses. Answer E is incorrect because Network Time Protocol (NTP) facilitates the communication of time information between systems.
Question 21
B, D. 100BaseFX networks use fiber media, which can use either SC or ST connectors. Answer A is incorrect because RJ-45 connectors are used with UTP media. Answer C is incorrect because BNC connectors are used with thin coax media on 10Base2 networks.
Question 22
B. 802.1x is an IEEE standard specifying port-based network access control. Port-based network access control uses the physical characteristics of a switched local area network (LAN) infrastructure to authenticate devices attached to a LAN port and to prevent access to that port in cases where the authentication process fails. Answer A is incorrect because 802.11x is not a security standard but sometimes is used to refer to all wireless network standards, such as 802.11b/g/a/n. Answer C, 802.11b, is an actual wireless standard specifying transmission speeds of 11Mbps.
Question 23
A. Unlike copper-based media, fiber-optic media is resistant to crosstalk, because it uses light transmissions. Answer B is incorrect because STP offers greater resistance to crosstalk than regular UTP but is not as resistant as fiber-optic cable. Answer C is incorrect because UTP cable is more susceptible to crosstalk than either STP or fiber-optic. Answer D is incorrect because shielded mesh is not a type of cable.
Question 24
A, D. Both backups and offsite data storage are considered disaster recovery measures. Answer B is incorrect because a UPS is considered a fault-tolerance measure, not a disaster recovery measure. Answer C is incorrect because RAID 5 is considered a fault-tolerance measure, not a disaster recovery measure.
Question 25
A. The output is from the arp -a command, which shows information related to IP address-to-MAC address resolutions. Answer B is incorrect because the
tracert command displays the route a packet takes between two points. Answer C is incorrect because the ipconfig command displays a system’s network configuration. Answer D is incorrect because there is no such command as netinf.
Question 26
B. IEEE 802.11g/b wireless systems communicate with each other using radio frequency signals in the band between 2.4GHz and 2.5GHz. Neighboring channels are 5MHz apart. Therefore, channel 3 would use the 2422 RF (2412+5+5).
Question 27
A. IPSec is a nonproprietary security standard used to secure transmissions both on the internal network and when data is sent outside the local LAN. IPSec provides encryption and authentication services for data communications. Answer B is not a valid protocol. Answer C, CHAP, is a remote-access authentication protocol. Answer D is incorrect because FTP is a protocol used for large data transfers, typically from the Internet.
Question 28
A, B. The devices on one side of the router need to be configured with a different IP network address than when the network was a single segment. Also, the default gateway information on all systems needs to be updated to use the newly installed router as the default gateway. Answer C is incorrect because the default gateway address should be the address of the router, not another workstation on the network. Answer D is incorrect because for systems to communicate on an IP network, all devices must be assigned a unique IP address. Assigning systems the same address would cause address conflicts, thus keeping the systems from communicating.
Question 29
C. 100BaseT is implemented using a minimum of Category 5 UTP cable. Answer A is incorrect because RG-58 is a type of coaxial cable with a maximum speed of 10Mbps. Answer B is incorrect because Category 4 UTP cable is not intended for use on a 100BaseT network. Answer D is incorrect because multimode fiber is used in fiber-optic networks. The 100BaseT standard defines 100Mbps networking using UTP cable.
Question 30
C. Each node on a star network uses its own cable, which makes it easy to add users without disrupting current ones. Adding a node to a bus network can sometimes involve breaking the segment, which makes it inaccessible to all other nodes on the network. This makes answer A incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because a true ring network model would require that the ring be broken to add a new device. Answer D is incorrect because a mesh topology requires that every device be connected to every other device on the network. Therefore, it is quite difficult to expand a mesh network.
Question 31
B. The ping -t command issues a continuous stream of ping requests until it is interrupted. A regular ping sends four requests, but sometimes this is not enough to troubleshoot a connectivity issue. None of the other answers are valid switches for a continuous ping command.
Question 32
C. When a client system first boots up, it looks for a DHCP server. If the server cannot be found, Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) automatically assigns IP addresses to the client systems. The addresses are not routable and cannot be used to access remote segments. The addresses assigned are in the 169.254.0.0 address range. All clients configured with valid APIPA address will be able to communicate with each other.
Question 33
B. The Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) manages the address assignments for public networks such as the Internet. Answers A and D are incorrect because on a private network or LAN, you can use any internal IP addressing scheme that is compatible with your local network. Answer C is incorrect because an Ethernet network can be either private or public. It does not directly need an IANA assigned addressing scheme.
Question 34
B. The 1000BaseCX standard specifies Gigabit Ethernet over STP cabling. Answer A is incorrect because 1000BaseSX and 1000BaseLX specify Gigabit Ethernet over two types of multimode fiber. Answer C is incorrect because single-mode fiber-optic cable is used with the 100BaseFX standard. Answer D is incorrect because there is no such thing as CoreXtended fiber-optic cable.
Question 35
B. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol, so it can recover from failed transmissions. Answer A is incorrect because L2TP is used in remote-access connections. Answer C is incorrect because FTP is a connectionless file transfer protocol and cannot recover from lost packets. Answer D is incorrect because ARP is part of the TCP/IP protocol suite that resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses.
Question 36
D. The DNS service uses port 53. If this port is accidentally blocked, the DNS service will be unavailable. Answer A is incorrect because secure HTTP uses port 443. Answer B is incorrect because FTP uses port 21. Answer C is incorrect because Telnet uses port 23.
Question 37
D. On a Linux system, the ifconfig command shows the network card configuration. Answer A is incorrect because the config command shows the network configuration on a NetWare server. Answer B is incorrect because the ipconfig
command shows the network configuration information on a Windows system. Answer C is incorrect because the winipcfg command shows the network configuration information on a certain Windows system, such as Windows 95/98.
Question 38
D. The Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) has reserved addresses 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254 for Automatic Private IP Addressing. APIPA uses a Class B address with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. None of the other IP address ranges listed are associated with APIPA address ranges.
Question 39
A. In a RAID 1 scenario where two controllers are being used (disk duplexing), one disk carries an exact copy of the other. Therefore, the total volume of one disk (30GB in this case) is lost to redundancy.
Question 40
B. Primary Rate ISDN (PRI) uses 23 B channels to carry data and one D channel to carry signaling information. Answer C is incorrect because it describes Basic Rate ISDN (BRI).
Question 41
D. The Gigabit Ethernet standard 1000BaseSX specifies multimode fiber-optic cable. 1000BaseSX can be used up to 550 meters. Answers B and C are incorrect because the 1000BaseSX gigabit Ethernet standard does not specify the use of single-mode fiber-optic cable or UTP cabling. Answer A is incorrect because no Gigabit Ethernet standards use coaxial cabling.
Question 42
D. The bridging method used on Ethernet networks is called transparent because the other network devices are unaware of the existence of the bridge. Source-route bridges are used on Token Ring networks, invisible is not a type of bridge, and cut-through is a switching method, not a type of bridge.
Question 43
C, D. In most cases, you should try the simplest solutions first. You should verify information such as the username and password before attempting any reconfiguration. Answer A is incorrect because if the modem is dialing the remote system and getting a response, it is most likely working correctly. Answer B is incorrect because running a remote diagnostic on the modem is a valid troubleshooting step, but you should first verify that the correct connection information is being used.
Question 44
C. Although it provides the physical connection to the network, a NIC is considered a data link device. Answers A, B, and D are wrong because a NIC is not said to operate at any of these layers.
Question 45
D. Multiple input and multiple output (MIMO) is the use of multiple antennas at both the transmitter and receiver to improve communication performance. MIMO is used by the 802.11n standard and takes advantage of multiplexing to increase the range and speed of wireless networking. Multiplexing is a technique that combines multiple signals for transmission over a single line or medium. MIMO enables the transmission of multiple data streams traveling on different antennas in the same channel at the same time. A receiver reconstructs the streams, which have multiple antennas. The wireless standards in answers A, B, and C do not use the MIMO technology.
Question 46
D. The 100BaseT standard defines an Ethernet network using twisted-pair cable, which would be configured in a physical star configuration. However, even in a star configuration, an Ethernet network still uses a logical bus topology.
Question 47
B. The output shown is from the netstat command from a Windows-based system.
Question 48
A, D. Data signals weaken as they travel down a particular medium. This is known as attenuation. To increase the distance a signal can travel, we can regenerate the data signal to give it more strength. A hardware repeater regenerates the data signal as it passes, allowing it to travel farther. Repeaters typically are no longer standalones device; rather, they are included with the function of a switch. Answers B and C are incorrect because a passive hub and DHCP server are not designed to answer.
Question 49
C. The Hayes AT command set provides commands that allow you to communicate directly with the modem. The ATZ command is used to reset the modem. Answer A is incorrect because the ATD command is used to dial a number. Answer B is incorrect because the ATI command is used to retrieve information from the modem. The ATI3 command shows the modem’s manufacturer and model. Answer D is incorrect because the ATH command is used to hang up a connection.
Question 50
D. A Layer 2 address is a MAC address. A Layer 3 address is a software-configured protocol address. Because a normal resolution is considered to be a Layer 3-to-Layer 2 resolution, the resolution the other way is considered a reverse resolution. On a TCP/IP network, such a resolution is performed by Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP). Answer A is incorrect because ARPA is not an address resolution protocol. Answer B is incorrect because Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) resolves Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 addresses. Answer C is incorrect because AppleTalk Address Resolution Protocol is used, on AppleTalk networks, to resolve AppleTalk addresses to MAC addresses.
Question 51
C, D. Server clustering is a strategy using a grouping of servers to provide fault tolerance and failover service solutions for a network. In a clustered configuration, servers constantly communicate with each other. If one fails, the other knows, and it takes over the functions of that server, including the services that the failed server delivered. This provides fault tolerance for network services. Because the network can function in the event of a failed server, network downtime is reduced. Server clustering is not used to create data transmission security.
Question 52
D. XTDSL is not a recognized form of DSL. Answer A (VHDSL) and Answer B (RADSL) are recognized versions of DSL. Answer C (ADSL) is a recognized, and arguably the most popular, version of DSL.
Question 53
C. If a Windows client system cannot locate and obtain an IP address from a DHCP server, it is assigned an address automatically using APIPA. After the address is assigned, all client stations with an APIPA address can communicate with each other. However, APIPA addresses are meant for internal communication and cannot be used to access remote networks. Answer A is incorrect because there is no such thing. Answer B is incorrect because the IP address is obtained from the DHCP server, not from the client cache. Answer D is incorrect because the client was not configured to use static IP addressing.
Question 54
A, C. A proxy server acts as a centralized point for Internet access, thus making it easy to control a user’s Internet use. Also, the proxy server provides network address translation services as requests are sent to the Internet using the address of the proxy server’s external interface, not the system that sent it. Answer B describes the function of a firewall. Although some proxy servers also offer firewall functionality, they are separate operations. Answer D describes the function of DHCP.
Question 55
A. The output shown is from an nbtstat command running on a Windows system.
Question 56
A, C. Infrared and Bluetooth are short-range wireless technologies used to connect personal devices such as PDAs, printers, and other resources to a computer. These are called a personal area networks (PANs) because they are small networks designed for personal use. PANs are often seen in coffee shops, libraries, and other areas where users work remotely. The 802.11 wireless standards, including 802.11g, are used to create wireless LANs, which include more devices, users, and resources.
Question 57
A. Although it looks odd, this is a valid Class C address that could be assigned to a system on the network. Answer B is the broadcast address of the network 200.200.200.0. Answer C is a valid Class B address. Answer D is the network address for the network 203.16.42.
Question 58
B. Flow control occurs at the transport layer of the OSI model. Flow control does not occur at the network, session, or data link layers.
Question 59
A. Unlike POP3, IMAP does not directly download and then remove messages from the mail server. Instead, IMAP leaves the email on the server so that messages can be retrieved from various locations. Answers B and C are wrong because IMAP is used only to retrieve email. Answer D is incorrect because IMAP uses port 143. POP uses port 110.
Question 60
C. 100BaseT is a network standard that runs at 100Mbps. A full-duplex configuration in a switched environment gives a maximum throughput between two devices of 200Mbps. Answer A is the maximum speed of a 10BaseT network in half-duplex mode. Answer B is the maximum speed of a 10BaseT network in full-duplex mode. Answer D is the maximum speed of a 100BaseT network in half-duplex mode.
Question 61
C. In a RAID 5 implementation, the space equal to the size of one disk in the array is lost to the storage of parity information. Answer D describes the amount of space available for storing data, not the amount of space lost to storing parity information.
Question 62
D. Most modern phone systems are digital, so regular analog modems that require analog lines will not work. Answer A is incorrect because if the phone line in the room were analog, the modem would probably work. Answer B is incorrect because the phone line in the room is not faulty; the user called you to report the problem. Answer C is incorrect because if the modem can report a “no dial tone” error, it is most likely working correctly.
Question 63
A. A link-local IPv6 address is automatically configured on all interfaces. This automatic configuration is equivalent to the 169.254.0.0 automatically assigned IPv4 addressing. The prefix used for a link-local address is fe80::.
Question 64
A. The netstat utility allows you to view the TCP/IP connections between two systems. The nbtstat utility (answer B) is used to see the status of NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. The tracert utility (answer C) is used to track the path that a packet of data takes between two hosts. The ipconfig utility (answer D) is used to view the IP addressing configuration information on a system.
Question 65
C. The Kerberos authentication system uses tickets as part of the authentication process. HTTPS (answer A) is an implementation of SSL. It does not use tickets. POP3 (answer B) is an email retrieval protocol. SSL (answer D) does not use tickets.
Question 66
C. Convergence is the term used to describe how long it takes routers to update changes to the network. Routing loops can occur on networks with slow convergence. Routing loops occur when the routing tables on the routers are slow to update, and a redundant communication cycle is created between routers. Answers A and B are strategies to prevent routing loops. Answer D is incorrect because BGP is a distance-vector protocol.
Question 67
A. The term subnetting refers to the process of using parts of the node address range for network addressing purposes. Supernetting (answer B) refers to the process of borrowing parts of the network address portion of an assigned address to be used for node addressing. Subnet masking (answer C) describes the process of applying a subnet mask to an address. Answer D is not a valid term.
Question 68
B. A switch is more efficient than a hub, because it forwards data only to intended ports. Answer A is incorrect because a hub directs data packets to all devices connected to the hub. Answers C and D are wrong because these are not network devices.
Question 69
B. If the gateway information is not set correctly, the data packets cannot get beyond the local subnet. All the other options do not prevent the user from transmitting data to remote hosts.
Question 70
C. Subnetting allows you to create more than one network from a single network address by manipulating the subnet mask to create more network addresses. Answer A is incorrect because the 127.x.x.x address range is reserved for TCP/IP loopback functionality and cannot be used as an addressing scheme. Answer B is incorrect because reverse proxy is used when a proxy server protects another server (normally a web server), which responds to requests from users on the other side of the proxy server. Answer D is incorrect because private addressing might well solve the issues of security and traffic management, but without also using reverse proxy, systems on the internal network are unavailable to outside users.
Question 71
B, E. A hardware loopback plug connects the 2 and 6 wires and the 1 and 3 wires to simulate a live network connection. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect for the cable in a hardware loopback adapter.
Question 72
A, B. The IPv4 address (127.0.0.1) is reserved as the loopback address; IPv6 has the same reservation. IPv6 address 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 is reserved as the loopback address. The address also can be shown using the :: notation with the 0s removed, resulting in ::1. Answer C is incorrect because that is not the address for the loopback adapter. Answer D is the IPv6 address for the link-local address.